A 70-year-old bedridden patient was brought to the ER with painless abdominal distension for few days. Vital signs are stable and abdominal exam showed tense, non-tender tympanic distended abdomen. You suspect colonic- pseudo-obstruction (Ogilvie's syndrome). What would be the most appropriate next management step?
سؤال مجاني 6 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
المصادر مختلفة. ملفات الدفعة فيها إجابتين، وما نرجّح وحدة على الثانية. سبب كل وحدة في الشرح تحت:
- إجابة: B. NG tube decompression and correction of electrolyte
- إجابة ثانية: C. Lower gastrointestinal enema with gastrografin
For a stable patient with suspected Ogilvie's, the sources start with conservative management: bowel rest, NGT, IV fluids, stopping narcotics and correcting electrolytes. Neostigmine and colonoscopic decompression are kept for patients who do not respond. The sources also say a mechanical cause must be excluded first. The old bank's answer (gastrografin enema, C) does that, but the sources name CT, not a contrast enema, for this. So B is the best-supported answer and C is a defensible alternative.
- المصدر
- Bowel obstruction.pdf · p. 49
Bowel obstruction.pdf · p. 47
Surgical Principles - Bowel Obstruction.pdf · p. 7 - المحاضرة
- Bowel obstruction · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 41 Q40