A 24-year-old single female presents with a 24-hour history of abdominal pain and anorexia. The pain shifted from periumbilical area to the right lower quadrant. She is febrile and has leukocytosis. Examination reveals tenderness of the right lower quadrant and guarding. What is the best next step in management?
سؤال مجاني 8 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. Abdominal ultrasound
In a female with typical symptoms of appendicitis, the summaries recommend an ultrasound first to exclude gynaecological causes, then surgery. Ultrasound avoids radiation and assesses both the appendix and the pelvic organs. CT is kept for atypical or uncertain cases. The word single signals that pregnancy is unlikely, so beta-hCG is not the key next step here, although many protocols still check it in all women of reproductive age.
- المصدر
- 1- Acute Appendicitis (Notes).pdf · p. 8
Acute Appendicitis (1).pdf · p. 16 - المحاضرة
- Appendicitis · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 26 Q15