A 45-year-old male presents with a 24-hour history of abdominal pain and anorexia. He initially described periumbilical pain but now states the pain is most severe in his right lower quadrant. He is febrile and has a leukocytosis. Examination reveals tenderness of the right lower quadrant. Abdominal Ultrasound is done to the patient that reveals an appendicular mass. What will be the safest next step in management?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Intravenous antibiotics and interval appendectomy
In a stable patient with an appendicular mass (phlegmon), the safest plan is IV antibiotics (with IV fluids), followed by interval appendectomy once the inflammation settles. Immediate appendectomy is risky because the tissues are friable and the bowel is easily injured. Ultrasound-guided drainage is used for an abscess, not a phlegmon. NPO and analgesia alone do not treat the infection.
- المصدر
- Acute Appendicitis (1).pdf · p. 20
Acute appendicitis final.pdf · p. 23 - المحاضرة
- Appendicitis · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 26 Q14