A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her husband after having 3 episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Each episode lasted approximately two minutes during which she was incontinent of urine. Medical history is significant for epilepsy and with compliance to antiepileptic treatment. On examination, vital signs are stable. She is obtunded with a positive gag reflex. Again, she exhibits more generalized tonic-clonic convulsive activity. In addition to supportive and safety measures, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
سؤال مجاني 2 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. Lorazepam
Repeated generalized tonic-clonic seizures without recovery of consciousness between them = status epilepticus. After ABCs, the first-line drug is an IV benzodiazepine (lorazepam); phenytoin/fosphenytoin is the second step and phenobarbital comes later.
- Phenytoin (A and B are duplicated) is given after the benzodiazepine, not as the immediate treatment.
- المصدر
- 2. Seizure and Epilepsy.pdf · p. 1
Neurology 🧠.pdf · p. 13 - المحاضرة
- Seizures & Epilepsy · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Neuro bank