A 60-year-old man has 10 minutes history of left sided weakness with slurred speech that recovers spontaneously. He has diabetes and hypertension on regular treatments. Clinically, BP 170/80, HR 60 regular, and he has normal neurological examinations. CT brain is normal. What is the best next step in management?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. Admit for work up and observations
✓ مطابق للمصدر
Basics of Neurology-Ali Rawas.pdf · p. 150
Deficits that resolved within minutes with a normal CT = TIA. His ABCD2 score is 6 (age ≥60 = 1, BP ≥140/90 = 1, unilateral weakness = 2, duration 10–59 min = 1, diabetes = 1), i.e. high risk, so he should be admitted for urgent work-up and secondary prevention.
- Anticoagulation (D) is for a cardioembolic source such as AF; his pulse is regular and no source is known yet.
- Thrombolysis (C) is not given once symptoms have resolved; discharge (B) is for low-risk scores.
- المصدر
- Basics of Neurology-Ali Rawas.pdf · p. 150
Stroke K.pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Weakness: TIA & Stroke · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Neuro bank