34-year-old women was seen for easily bruising. She is previously healthy and takes no medications. On examination she had petechiae over her arms & legs. No organomegaly. Her CBC showed WBC of 6000 (5000-10,000), Hg 12g/dl (12-14) & platelets count of 18000 (150,000-350,000). Peripheral smear showed decreased number of platelets. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: E. Prednisone
Isolated thrombocytopenia (18,000) with petechiae in a healthy young woman = ITP. Treat when platelets are <30,000 with or without bleeding. First-line therapy: corticosteroids (prednisone) are preferred; IVIG/anti-D are alternatives (contraindication, non-response, or urgent need).
- Observation is only for platelets ≥30,000.
- Splenectomy is second-line for refractory/chronic ITP, not done immediately.
- المصدر
- Hematology🩸.pdf · p. 28
Hematology🩸.pdf · p. 29
Step Up To Medicine 6th, 2024 (Platelet disorders).pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Thrombocytopenia · Hematology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Hema bank