A previously healthy 25-year-old man has a 3-month history of episodes of bloody diarrhea associated with mild cramps and lower abdominal pain. He denies recent travel and cannot recall any unusual food items or friends with similar symptoms. He has lost weight. He is mildly tender on abdominal palpation with no masses. Digital rectal exam is normal. He is mildly anemic and stool cultures are negative Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 6 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Inflammatory bowel disease
A young adult with months of recurrent bloody diarrhoea, cramps, weight loss and anaemia, with negative stool cultures (infection excluded) and no travel, has inflammatory bowel disease until proven otherwise; hematochezia with urgency/tenesmus is typical of colitis. Coeliac disease causes non-bloody malabsorptive diarrhoea; irritable bowel syndrome does not cause bleeding, weight loss or anaemia; caecal carcinoma would be unusual at 25 and typically presents with iron-deficiency anaemia rather than bloody diarrhoea.
- المصدر
- Inflammatory bowel disease.pdf · p. 1
17• Inflammatory Bowel Disease [Notes].pdf · p. 2 - المحاضرة
- IBD · Gastroenterology & Liver · Module C
- ظهر في
- GI bank