A 42-years-old man presented with vertigo and imbalance. Exam is notable for left sided ataxia and left gaze nystagmus. MRI brain showed multiple non-enhancing lesions and a single cerebellar lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
سؤال مجاني 4 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. High dose intravenous steroids
✓ مطابق للمصدر
11. Multiple Sclerosis.pdf · p. 6
Old non-enhancing lesions plus a new symptomatic cerebellar lesion (vertigo, ataxia, nystagmus) = an acute MS relapse. First-line treatment of an acute exacerbation is high-dose IV corticosteroids (e.g. methylprednisolone); plasmapheresis is second line if steroids fail.
- IVIG is a GBS/MG treatment; LP is not needed when MRI is already suggestive.
- المصدر
- 11. Multiple Sclerosis.pdf · p. 6
MS.pdf · p. 3 - المحاضرة
- Multiple Sclerosis · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- MED42 ♂ EOM C · MED41 ♀ EOM C