A 38-year-old woman presented with left sided tingling affecting face, arm and leg. Her exam is notable for absent sensation in the same distribution and hyperreflexia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
سؤال مجاني 5 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. MRI brain with and without contrast
✓ مطابق للمصدر
11. Multiple Sclerosis.pdf · p. 5
A central sensory deficit (face, arm, leg) with hyperreflexia in a young woman suggests demyelination (MS). The first-line test is MRI brain (and spine) with and without contrast — contrast shows active (enhancing) lesions, helping prove dissemination in time.
- Non-contrast MRI misses this; LP is only an extra supportive test.
- المصدر
- 11. Multiple Sclerosis.pdf · p. 5
- المحاضرة
- Multiple Sclerosis · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- MED42 ♂ EOM C · MED41 ♀ EOM C