A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin (INR = 1.0) presents to the emergency department with acute onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. His NIHSS score is 16. He last appeared normal 2 hours ago. Initial non- contrast CT of the head is normal, and CT angiography shows no large vessel occlusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Give intravenous alteplase (thrombolysis)
Acute ischaemic stroke with a disabling deficit, last known well 2 h ago (<3-4.5 h), and a CT showing no haemorrhage = give IV alteplase. Warfarin is not a barrier here because the contraindication is INR >1.7 and his INR is 1.0. Mechanical thrombectomy needs a large vessel occlusion, which CTA excluded; antiplatelets/ICU monitoring alone would forgo reperfusion.
- المصدر
- 5. Acute Ischemic Stroke.pdf · p. 5
Stroke K.pdf · p. 7 - المحاضرة
- Weakness: TIA & Stroke · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- MED42 Compre C