A 75-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes is admitted to neurology with an acute ischemic stroke. She is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation on admission. On planning discharge, medication and stroke prevention are discussed. Which is the most appropriate long-term management?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Apixiban 5 mg BID
✓ مطابق للمصدر
1. Stroke.pdf · p. 2
Ischaemic stroke with atrial fibrillation is an indication for long-term oral anticoagulation, either a DOAC such as apixaban or warfarin. Of the options, only apixaban is correct: warfarin needs an INR goal of 2–3, not 1.0–1.5. Aspirin or no anticoagulation does not give adequate cardioembolic prevention.
- المصدر
- 1. Stroke.pdf · p. 2
8. Ischemic & Hemorrhagic Strokes.pdf · p. 6 - المحاضرة
- Weakness: TIA & Stroke · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- MED43 ♀ Compre