A 34-year-old woman has a 1.5 cm clinically non-functioning pituitary macroadenoma, no hormonal syndrome, regular periods. What is the next step?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Visual field assessment and ask about new headache
A 1.5 cm macroadenoma with no hormonal syndrome and regular periods: the key issue is mass effect. Pituitary macroadenomas present with headache and visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia), and these findings decide whether surgery is needed — so assess visual fields and ask about headache.
- Regular menses already exclude gonadotropin deficiency in a woman; 'no assessment' is wrong for a macroadenoma.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش غلط
Observation is described for non-functioning microadenomas; this is a 1.5 cm macroadenoma, whose mass effect must be assessed first.
✓ RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 3 -
C
ليش صح
Pituitary macroadenomas can present with headache and visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopsia) or diplopia, so check visual fields and ask about headache.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 5 -
D
ليش غلط
Skipping assessment risks missing mass effect (headache, visual field defects), which is what decides whether surgery is needed.
✓ RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 3
- المصدر
- Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 5
RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 3 - المحاضرة
- Pituitary Disorders · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- MED41 ♀ EOM B