A 33-year-old woman has periods delayed to every 40–50 days, nipple discharge for 4 months and headache. What is the most important next diagnostic step?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Prolactin, TSH, FSH, LH
Oligomenorrhoea + nipple discharge (galactorrhoea) + headache suggests a prolactinoma. The first step is biochemistry: prolactin, plus TSH to exclude hypothyroidism (and FSH/LH for the menstrual disturbance). Imaging comes after; and pituitary imaging is MRI, not CT brain. MRI breast doesn't address the cause.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش غلط
Imaging (cranial contrast MRI to rule out a pituitary adenoma) follows the laboratory work-up of prolactin, pregnancy test and TSH, so brain imaging is not the first step.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 -
B
ليش صح
In suspected hyperprolactinemia, first check the prolactin level and exclude hypothyroidism (TSH) and physiological causes; MRI comes last.
✓ RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 2 -
C
ليش غلط
Nipple discharge with menstrual disturbance is the female presentation of hyperprolactinemia; the work-up is hormonal, not breast imaging.
✓ RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 2
- المصدر
- RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 2
Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 - المحاضرة
- Pituitary Disorders · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- MED41 ♂ EOM B