A 45-year-old male with long standing history of left inguinal hernia presents to ER Because he cannot reduce it for the last five hours. Examination refills a heart rate of 89 beat permit BPM, blood pressure 120 / 85, off Braille and the abdomen is soft, bowel sound is normal and there is a tense Non tender swelling and left groin with negative cough impulse. What Would be the most appropriate management option?
سؤال مجاني 6 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
المصادر مختلفة. ملفات الدفعة فيها إجابتين، وما نرجّح وحدة على الثانية. سبب كل وحدة في الشرح تحت:
- إجابة: B. Sedation, muscle relaxant and gently reduce the swelling
- إجابة ثانية: C. IV crystalloid and proceed to OR for hernia repair
Here the irreducible hernia is non-tender, the patient is stable, and the abdomen is soft with normal bowel sounds. That is incarceration without signs of strangulation or obstruction. Several sources support a trial of gentle reduction under sedation/analgesia (taxis) as a temporizing step, followed by repair at the next opportunity. Other sources favour early surgery for any irreducible hernia because obstruction and strangulation are hard to tell apart clinically, which supports the bank's key (C). Compare D-366, where the tender hernia means you go straight to the OR.
- المصدر
- Hernia 39.pdf · p. 6
Hernia Bailey.pdf · p. 5
Hernia - Afnan.pdf · p. 9 - المحاضرة
- Hernia · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 120 Q65