A 66-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of one episode of hematemesis and melena. Past history includes coronary artery disease and hypertension and a laparotomy for abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. An urgent upper endoscopy is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?
سؤال مجاني 6 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
المصادر مختلفة. ملفات الدفعة فيها إجابتين، وما نرجّح وحدة على الثانية. سبب كل وحدة في الشرح تحت:
- إجابة: B. Colonoscopy.
- إجابة ثانية: D. abdominal CT scan with angiogram
The sources' algorithm for a stable patient is clear: EGD negative → colonoscopy, which is the bank/exam key (B). However, the stem stresses a previous AAA repair, which raises suspicion of an aorto-enteric fistula. That can be missed on EGD, and many would go straight to CT angiography (D), which the Ninja Nerd notes also call the best test for obscure GI bleeding. Answer B by the algorithm, but be aware of D.
- المصدر
- Surgical Principles 💉.pdf · p. 110
14• GI Bleed [Notes].pdf · p. 1 - المحاضرة
- GI bleeding · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 103 Q28