A 45-year-old male attended the ER complaining of abdominal pain and vomiting for 1 day. He underwent an appendectomy at the age of 18 years. It was complicated by a pelvic abscess. Abdominal examination revealed tenderness over the appendectomy scar with a resonant percussion note, no rebound phenomenon and vitals reasonably stable. All his blood tests were normal. A plain abdominal film showed multiple dilated small bowel loops. Which of the following is a correct statement?
سؤال مجاني 8 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Dilated bowel loops are highly suggestive of bowel obstruction (together with the clinical picture)
On the abdominal series, dilated small bowel loops (> 3 cm) with air-fluid levels and little rectal air are specific findings of SBO. Together with the clinical picture, they strongly suggest bowel obstruction.
- A is wrong: initial management is resuscitation and NGT decompression, and surgery depends on the cause or on strangulation.
- B is wrong: the cardinal features are colicky pain, vomiting and obstipation, not fever.
- D is wrong: adhesions cause about 75% of SBO, not small-bowel tumours.
- المصدر
- Bowel obstruction.pdf · p. 16
Bowel obstruction.pdf · p. 11
Bowel obstruction.pdf · p. 7 - المحاضرة
- Bowel obstruction · General Surgery · Module D
- ظهر في
- Surgery QB (Module D) p. 37 Q22 · Surgery QB (Module D) p. 47 Q64 · Surgery QB (Module D) p. 47 Q66