A 30-year-old man with relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis on interferon therapy has new onset right visual loss for one week. Clinically he has normal visual acuity on the left eye. However, he has only count "fingers on the right eye with right relative pupillary reflex. His fundus examination is normal. Rest of neurological exam is normal. His laboratory investigations within normal limits. What will be the most appropriate treatment for him?
سؤال مجاني 9 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
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الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Pulse steroid therapy
Acute optic neuritis (monocular visual loss, RAPD, normal fundus = retrobulbar) in known RRMS is an acute relapse; a very significant visual deficit is treated with pulse (high-dose IV) steroids.
- Switching to fingolimod changes long-term prevention but does not treat the acute attack.
- Ophthalmology referral delays treatment of a typical MS relapse.
- المصدر
- 11. Multiple Sclerosis.pdf · p. 6
MS.pdf · p. 3 - المحاضرة
- Multiple Sclerosis · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Neuro bank