A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of a sudden onset of occipital headache, associated with vomiting, which started within the previous two hours and is continuing. The headache is much more severe than his usual migraine, which has not previously started suddenly. Examination, including fundoscopy is unremarkable, with no neck stiffness or photophobia. Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. CT brain scan followed by lumbar puncture if CT is normal
A sudden, severe headache different from his usual migraine is a thunderclap headache and must be investigated for subarachnoid haemorrhage. Non-contrast CT is the best initial test; a normal CT does not exclude SAH, so it is followed by lumbar puncture (>12 h after onset) looking for xanthochromia.
- Discharge after a normal CT (C) misses CT-negative SAH; LP first (B) skips the initial CT; angiography (E) comes after SAH is confirmed.
- المصدر
- (Y4)-(M C) Stroke.pdf · p. 6
Headache (2).pdf · p. 23 - المحاضرة
- Weakness: TIA & Stroke · Neurology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Neuro bank