A 25-year-old man with a history of IV drug abuse, has fever, arthralgia, and joint swelling. He has high BUN 35mg/dL, and creatinine 2.2 mg/dL but serum complement (C3) is low. 24-hour urine protein is 4g. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 7 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
✓ مطابق للمصدر
Nephrology 🌷.pdf · p. 29
An IV drug user (hepatitis C risk) with arthralgia, renal impairment, heavy proteinuria (4 g) and a low C3 = membranoproliferative GN, which is usually due to hepatitis C (with cryoglobulinaemia) and can be nephritic and/or nephrotic.
- Low C3 is seen in PSGN, lupus nephritis and MPGN.
- Minimal change disease, FSGS (even heroin-associated FSGS) and IgA nephropathy have normal complement.
- المصدر
- Nephrology 🌷.pdf · p. 29
Step Up To Medicine 6th, 2024 (Glomerular disease).pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Glomerular Diseases · Nephrology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Nephro bank