A 28 year old women has a 3-month history of easy bruising and bleeding gums. She feels otherwise well. Medical and family histories are unremarkable, and she takes no medications. On examination, vital signs are normal. Petechiae are present on the buccal mucosa and pretibial areas. No lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly. Hemoglobin 8.4 g/dl Absolute 68 (normal 60- reticulocyte count 100) Leukocyte count 2300/ul Direct Negative antiglobulin (coombs) test Platelet count 18,000/ul A peripheral blood smear shows platelets are decreased in number but otherwise normal. Bone marrow examination shows hypoplastic marrow (decreased cellular element) with normal maturation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 6 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Aplastic anemia
Pancytopenia (anaemia, WBC 2300, platelets 18,000) with a low reticulocyte response, no organomegaly and a hypocellular bone marrow with normal maturation is aplastic anaemia. ITP is the tempting option, but it lowers only the platelets, and the marrow has normal or increased megakaryocytes. AIHA is ruled out by the negative Coombs test.
- المصدر
- HEME-02 Normocytic Anemia [Notes].pdf · p. 16
HEME-02 Normocytic Anemia [Notes].pdf · p. 17 - المحاضرة
- High Blood Counts · Hematology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Hema bank