A 28-year-old lady presents with a 3-day history of a painful swollen right calf. Past medical history is relevant for 2 abortions at 11th week of gestations. CBC showed: WBC = 8.5/ mm3 (4000-11000) HGB= 9.8 g/dl (13.6- 17.7) platelets= 120.000 (130-400,000/mm3) coagulation screen shows: PT= 13s (control= 13), APTT= 78s (control 36) What is the most likely cause of her illness?
سؤال مجاني 5 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
A young woman with DVT, recurrent early miscarriages, mild thrombocytopenia and an isolated prolonged aPTT (normal PT) has antiphospholipid syndrome: the lupus anticoagulant prolongs the aPTT in vitro but causes thrombosis in vivo. DIC prolongs both PT and aPTT and lowers fibrinogen. Haemophilia causes bleeding, not thrombosis.
- المصدر
- HEME-05 Platelet Disorders [Notes].pdf · p. 10
- المحاضرة
- Anticoagulation · Hematology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Hema bank