A 64 year old man has a gradual decrease in exercise tolerance over the past 2 months. He has osteoarthritis of the right knee and his only medication is ibuprofen. On examination, HR 90/min, RR 20/min, BP 140/80 mmHg. Laboratory study findings include hemoglobin level of 9.6 g/dl and mean corpuscular volume of 76 fl. Serum iron, serum ferritin, transferrin saturation level are all low, and the total iron binding capacity is elevated. Stool is positive for occult blood Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient anemia?
سؤال مجاني 10 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. Oral iron
He has iron deficiency anaemia (low iron/ferritin/TSAT, high TIBC) from NSAID-related occult GI blood loss. He is stable with Hb 9.6, so oral ferrous sulfate is first-line, along with treating the source (stop the NSAID, investigate the GI tract).
- IV iron is for patients who can't tolerate oral iron, have malabsorption, or have severe IDA.
- Transfusion is for Hb <7 (or <8 with CAD) or haemodynamic instability.
- EPO is not a treatment for IDA.
- المصدر
- HEME-01 Microcytic Anemia [Notes].pdf · p. 9
- المحاضرة
- Anaemia · Hematology · Module C
- ظهر في
- Hema bank