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رجوع لأسئلة Anticoagulation 1 / 13
C-049 مطابق للمصدر جا في MED43 تكرر ×2

70 year old came with easily bruising with prolonged aptt and pt with correction mixing stuedies 1:1. What is the cause?

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الإجابة والشرح

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الإجابة: A. Vitamin K deficiency

✓ مطابق للمصدر HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 6

If a prolonged clotting time corrects on a 1:1 mixing study, the problem is a factor deficiency, not an inhibitor. A rise in both PT and aPTT points to a combined extrinsic + intrinsic defect (factors II, VII, IX, X). In an otherwise well elderly patient with bruising, that is vitamin K deficiency.

  • Lupus anticoagulant and factor VIII inhibitor are inhibitors, so the time does not normalise after mixing.
  • DIC would show oozing, schistocytes, low fibrinogen and high D-dimer, and would not respond to vitamin K.

ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط

  • A ليش صح

    With both PT and PTT prolonged, the notes list vitamin K deficiency among the causes, recognised by improvement in PT/INR with vitamin K.

    ✓ HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 7
  • B ليش غلط

    Lupus anticoagulant is an antiphospholipid antibody that leads to a prolonged aPTT; it does not account for a combined PT and aPTT prolongation like this one.

    ✓ Hematology🩸.pdf · p. 62
  • C ليش غلط

    A factor VIII inhibitor would not correct on mixing: a PTT that doesn't normalize indicates a factor inhibitor, whereas a PTT that normalizes means factor deficiency.

    ✓ HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 6
  • D ليش غلط

    DIC shows oozing from IV sites, schistocytes, low fibrinogen and high D-dimer, and the PT and PTT do not improve with vitamin K.

    ✓ HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 7
المصدر
HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 6
HEME-06 Coagulopathy [Notes].pdf · p. 7
المحاضرة
Anticoagulation · Hematology · Module C
ظهر في
MED43 ♀ Quiz C · MED43 ♀ Compre
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