A 42-year-old woman with fatigue, non-smoker, no CVD. BMI 42. Fasting glucose 113, TG 230, HDL 33, LDL 173. What is the most appropriate step?
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الإجابة: D. Counsel on bariatric surgery
BMI 42 is class III obesity, and with prediabetes and dyslipidaemia she meets the criteria to consider bariatric surgery, the most effective long-term obesity treatment. Metformin and a statin each treat only one consequence. CPAP needs a confirmed OSA diagnosis, which she does not have.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش غلط
Metformin would treat only the glucose abnormality; at BMI 40 or more (or 35 with complications) the treatment ladder reaches surgery, which is the step to consider.
✓ Obesity Disease 4th year September 2024 Alim and Binhussain.pdf · p. 18 -
B
ليش غلط
A statin would treat only the dyslipidemia; at BMI 40 or more (or 35 with complications) the treatment ladder reaches surgery for the obesity itself.
✓ Obesity Disease 4th year September 2024 Alim and Binhussain.pdf · p. 18 -
C
ليش غلط
A sleep study is how sleep apnea is looked for as an obesity complication; none has been diagnosed here, so CPAP is not the next step.
✓ Endocrine ✳️.pdf · p. 29 -
D
ليش صح
Surgery is considered at BMI 40 or more, or 35 or more with obesity-related complications; her BMI is 42 with dyslipidemia and raised glucose.
✓ Obesity Disease 4th year September 2024 Alim and Binhussain.pdf · p. 18
- المصدر
- Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (Obesity).pdf · p. 2
Obesity Disease 4th year September 2024 Alim and Binhussain.pdf · p. 18 - المحاضرة
- Obesity & Lipids · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- MED41 ♂ EOM B