A 76-year-old with no medical history has 3 days of palpitations; HR 130 irregular; ECG AF; echo normal. What is the most appropriate management to prevent thromboembolism?
سؤال مجاني 5 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Rivaroxaban 20 mg daily
A 76-year-old scores 2 on CHA2DS2-VASc (age 75 or older = 2 points), so anticoagulation is indicated. With a normal echo this is non-valvular AF, for which a DOAC such as rivaroxaban is preferred. Aspirin (alone or with clopidogrel) is not adequate stroke prevention, and warfarin's target INR is 2-3, not 3-4.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش غلط
With a CHA2DS2-VASc of 2 or more (here age 75 or older = 2 points) the source says anticoagulate; aspirin alone is not adequate stroke prevention for this patient.
✓ 3• Atrial Fibrillation [Slides].pdf · p. 10 -
B
ليش غلط
The anticoagulant choices listed are DOAC, warfarin and heparin; dual antiplatelet therapy is not among them.
✓ 3• Atrial Fibrillation [Slides].pdf · p. 10 -
C
ليش صح
With a CHA2DS2-VASc of 2 or more (age 75 or older = 2 points), anticoagulate; a DOAC such as rivaroxaban is the choice for nonvalvular AF.
✓ 3• Atrial Fibrillation [Slides].pdf · p. 10 -
D
ليش غلط
The typical warfarin goal is an INR of 2 to 3, not 3-4; and for nonvalvular AF a DOAC can be used.
✓ Step_Up_To_Medicine_6th_Arrhythmia,_brady&tachy_arrhythmia.pdf · p. 5
- المصدر
- 3• Atrial Fibrillation [Slides].pdf · p. 10
Step_Up_To_Medicine_6th_Arrhythmia,_brady&tachy_arrhythmia.pdf · p. 5 - المحاضرة
- Arrhythmia · Cardiology · Module B
- ظهر في
- MED41 ♀ EOM B