A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 5 years on insulin presents with nausea and vomiting. DKA is confirmed and he responds well to insulin infusion, IV fluids and electrolyte replacement. What is the most likely cause of his DKA?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Non-compliance with insulin therapy
The commonest precipitants of DKA are the 'I's: insulin omission/non-compliance, infection, inflammation and ischaemia. Low carbohydrate intake and heavy exercise cause hypoglycaemia, not DKA.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش غلط
Low carbohydrate intake is not among the listed DKA risk factors, which are insulin non-compliance, infection, ischemia, inflammation and steroids.
✓ Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 11 -
B
ليش غلط
Excessive physical activity is not among the listed DKA risk factors, which are insulin non-compliance, infection, ischemia, inflammation and steroids.
✓ Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 11 -
C
ليش صح
DKA is caused by insufficient insulin; the first listed precipitant is insulin non-compliance (missed doses), then infection, ischemia and inflammation.
✓ Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 11 -
D
ليش غلط
Excessive dietary fat is not among the listed DKA risk factors, which are insulin non-compliance, infection, ischemia, inflammation and steroids.
✓ Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 11
- المصدر
- RT - DM.pdf · p. 17
Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 11 - المحاضرة
- DKA & HHS · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- MED42 ♂ EOM B