A 56-year-old diabetic man who was admitted with pyrexia and rigors secondary to an infected diabetic foot ulcer and commenced on IV Flucloxacillin. The wound swab grew methicillin resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA. and an alternative intravenous antibiotic was started. What antibiotic is most likely have been prescribed to this patient?
سؤال مجاني 3 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. Vancomycin
Flucloxacillin (an anti-staph penicillin) covers only methicillin-sensitive S. aureus. For a systemically unwell patient with MRSA, the IV agent of choice is vancomycin, the drug of choice for MRSA bacteremia. Cefazolin covers MSSA only. Clarithromycin is not an MRSA drug, and clindamycin is an oral alternative rather than the IV choice for a septic patient.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش صح
Vancomycin is the drug of choice in MRSA bacteremia, and it has activity against most gram-positive bacteria including MRSA.
✓ Antibiotic-1 (3).pdf · p. 20 -
B
ليش غلط
Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin for Strep and MSSA, so it does not cover MRSA.
✓ Antibiotics 🍓.pdf · p. 1 -
C
ليش غلط
Clarithromycin is a macrolide used for diphtheria, whooping cough, mycoplasma pneumonia and as an alternative in penicillin allergy, not an MRSA drug.
✓ Antibiotics.pdf · p. 3 -
D
ليش غلط
Clindamycin is bacteriostatic and listed for staph infection of bone, joint and diabetic foot. For a septic patient with MRSA the course drug of choice is IV vancomycin.
✓ Antibiotics.pdf · p. 3
- المصدر
- Antibiotic-1 (3).pdf · p. 20
Antibiotic-1 (3).pdf · p. 12 - المحاضرة
- Antimicrobials · Infectious Diseases · Module B
- ظهر في
- ID bank