A 33-year-old man has an acute respiratory distress. Over the last 3 days, he noted feeling short of breath with exertion and dry cough. His temp is 39.1 "C, BP is 110/72 mmHg, HR is 98/min,RR is 22/min and SPO2 is 89% on room air. Chest exam reveals diffuse crepitation bilateral. His chest radiograph revealed bilateral lung infiltrate. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 5 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
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الإجابة والشرح
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الإجابة: A. Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS)
Acute fever, dry cough and dyspnoea with hypoxia, bilateral crackles and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on CXR match the MERS-CoV presentation taught in the lecture (confirmed by RT-PCR). Strep. pneumoniae typically gives lobar consolidation. Note the stem gives no travel/camel history, so this relies on the bilateral-infiltrate pattern.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش صح
MERS presents with fever, dry cough and dyspnea, bilateral crackles and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, and is confirmed by RT-PCR. The stem has no travel or camel history, so it is the clinical pattern that fits.
✓ Inefctious Diseases 🦠.pdf · p. 9 -
C
ليش غلط
S. pneumoniae causes typical pneumonia with sudden onset and lobar infiltration. This patient has a dry cough and diffuse bilateral infiltrates.
✓ Pulmonology 🫁.pdf · p. 15 -
D
ليش غلط
Staph. aureus pneumonia is described as commonly following an upper respiratory tract infection, with typical (lobar) features. This patient has diffuse bilateral infiltrates, a pattern better matched by MERS.
✓ Pulmonology 🫁.pdf · p. 15
- المصدر
- Inefctious Diseases 🦠.pdf · p. 9
all ID 🦠.pdf · p. 27 - المحاضرة
- Emerging Infections (MERS, Dengue, Influenza) · Infectious Diseases · Module B
- ظهر في
- ID bank