A 28-year-old woman undergoes routine evaluation. She is inquiring about HIV screening. She has had several lifetime male partners in the past. She is currently married and is sexually active only with her husband for 3 years. Her husband has been tested for HIV. She has no history of sexual transmitted disease. What is the most appropriate next step in assessing this patient?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. HIV enzyme linked immunoassay
HIV testing starts with a screening immunoassay (the combined antigen/antibody test is first choice, and the antibody ELISA is the alternative). Western blot is only a confirmatory test after a positive screen, and viral load or HAART do not come before a diagnosis.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش صح
The first step is a screening test: the combination antigen/antibody test is first choice and the antibody ELISA is the alternative. A negative screen essentially rules out HIV.
✓ all ID 🦠.pdf · p. 5 -
B
ليش غلط
Western blot is a confirmatory test (second choice), used only after a positive screening test. She has not been screened yet.
✓ all ID 🦠.pdf · p. 5 -
D
ليش غلط
HAART is the treatment for diagnosed HIV (Management). She has not been screened, so there is no diagnosis to treat; testing comes first.
✓ all ID 🦠.pdf · p. 6
- المصدر
- Inefctious Diseases 🦠.pdf · p. 13
- المحاضرة
- HIV & Opportunistic Infections · Infectious Diseases · Module B
- ظهر في
- ID bank