A 24-year-old married woman has not had a period for 4 months. She denies headache, blurred vision, or any other symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. Pregnancy test
In any woman of reproductive age with secondary amenorrhoea, pregnancy must be ruled out first with a pregnancy test. Prolactin, TSH and MRI come after pregnancy is excluded.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش صح
In females pregnancy must always be ruled out, so a pregnancy test is the initial test for this married 24-year-old with 4 months of amenorrhea.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 -
B
ليش غلط
Prolactin is ordered along with a pregnancy test and TSH, because pregnancy and hypothyroidism are on the differential of hyperprolactinemia and must be excluded.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 -
C
ليش غلط
TSH is part of the work-up (primary hypothyroidism is on the differential), but in females pregnancy must always be ruled out, which makes the pregnancy test the initial test here.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 -
D
ليش غلط
MRI is the imaging step used to rule out pituitary adenomas, after the basic tests; this patient has no headache or visual symptoms pointing to an adenoma.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7
- المصدر
- view-material.pdf · p. 210
Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 7 - المحاضرة
- Pituitary Disorders · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- Endo bank