A 45-year-old man reports an increase foot size 39 >> 41.5 and increase size of hands. On examination he has organomegaly. His IGF-1 is high. What the most appropriate next step?
سؤال مجاني 3 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. Glucose tolerance test
Clinical acromegaly with raised IGF-1 is confirmed by an oral glucose tolerance test (failure of GH suppression). Pituitary MRI comes after biochemical confirmation, to find the source. Random GH is unreliable, and somatostatin analogues are treatment.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش غلط
Pituitary MRI comes after biochemical confirmation: if GH is not suppressed on the OGTT, acromegaly is confirmed and MRI is done to find the source.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 9 -
B
ليش غلط
The acromegaly work-up on this page is IGF-1, then the OGTT with GH, then MRI; prolactin is not a step in it.
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 9 -
C
ليش غلط
A single GH level is not used; the confirmatory test is the OGTT with baseline GH and GH after 2 hours (the most specific test).
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 9 -
D
ليش صح
With an elevated IGF-1, acromegaly is suspected and the next test is the oral glucose tolerance test with GH measurement (failure to suppress confirms it).
✓ Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 9 -
E
ليش غلط
Octreotide (a somatostatin analogue) is treatment for acromegaly, listed under management after the diagnostic steps (IGF-1, glucose suppression test, MRI).
✓ RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 4
- المصدر
- Pituitary disorder.pdf · p. 9
RT - Pituitary.pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Pituitary Disorders · Endocrinology · Module B
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