A 52-year-old woman presents for type 2 diabetes mellitus follow up. Initial hemoglobin A1c is 8.0%. In addition to life style modifications, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Initiate metformin
With HbA1c 8% (above target) at follow-up, metformin plus lifestyle modification is the first-line initial pharmacotherapy for T2DM. Dapagliflozin, sitagliptin and glipizide are add-on agents (or chosen for specific comorbidities such as HF/CKD/ASCVD, none mentioned here).
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش غلط
Dapagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor, prescribed when heart failure or chronic kidney disease predominates; neither is described in this patient.
✓ RT - DM.pdf · p. 12 -
B
ليش غلط
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea, a second-line drug in type 2 DM, and hypoglycemia is common with sulfonylureas.
✓ 11• Diabetes Mellitus [Notes].pdf · p. 10 -
C
ليش صح
Her A1c of 8.0% is at or above target, and in that case metformin should be initiated at the time of diabetes diagnosis.
✓ RT - DM.pdf · p. 8 -
D
ليش غلط
Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor, a second-line drug in type 2 DM (with obesity as the listed comorbidity), not the initial agent.
✓ 11• Diabetes Mellitus [Notes].pdf · p. 10
- المصدر
- RT - DM.pdf · p. 8
Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 6 - المحاضرة
- Diabetes Mellitus · Endocrinology · Module B
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