A 17-year-old female presented with polyuria and polydipsia for ten days. Her BMI is 21. There is no family history of diabetes. Labs showed random blood glucose of 320 mg/dL, hemoglobin A1C is 6.0%. Urine ketones are negative. Islet cell auto-antibodies are positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
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الإجابة: D. Type 1 DM
A lean teenager with acute osmotic symptoms, RBG 320 and positive islet-cell autoantibodies has type 1 DM (autoimmune beta-cell destruction). The near-normal HbA1c reflects the very short (10-day) duration of hyperglycemia. Type 2 DM lacks autoantibodies, and diabetes insipidus does not cause hyperglycemia.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش غلط
Her polyuria is explained by hyperglycaemia: glucose in the urine pulls water out by osmotic diuresis.
✓ 11• Diabetes Mellitus [Notes].pdf · p. 2 -
B
ليش غلط
Type 2 DM is usually obese with autoantibodies absent; she is lean (BMI 21) with positive islet autoantibodies.
✓ Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 2 -
C
ليش غلط
Her random glucose of 320 with symptoms already meets the diabetes criterion (200 or more with diabetic symptoms), so this is beyond impaired glucose tolerance.
✓ Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 4 -
D
ليش صح
Type 1 DM has an abrupt onset with marked hyperglycaemia over days to weeks and is usually autoimmune (over 90%), matching her islet autoantibodies.
✓ RT - DM.pdf · p. 4
- المصدر
- Diabetes mellitus overall Copy.pdf · p. 6
RT - DM.pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Diabetes Mellitus · Endocrinology · Module B
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- Endo bank