A 68-year-old woman is re-evaluated after laboratory studies show a fasting plasma glucose level of 113 mg/dL. She has a family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. On physical examination, blood pressure is 142/88 mm Hg and BMI is 29. Other vital signs and examination findings are normal. She undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test, during which her 2-hour plasma glucose level increases to 150 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
سؤال مجاني 5 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: D. Diet and exercise
Fasting glucose 113 (impaired fasting glucose) and 2-hour OGTT 150 (impaired glucose tolerance) mean prediabetes, not diabetes. Management is lifestyle change: diet, exercise and weight loss of about 5%. No drug is indicated here.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش غلط
Diabetes drugs are given to type 2 diabetic patients when diet and exercise are insufficient; she does not meet diabetes criteria.
✓ Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 6 -
B
ليش غلط
Metformin is the best initial drug for type 2 diabetes; this patient has prediabetes, not diabetes.
✓ Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 6 -
C
ليش غلط
This page's ACE inhibitor/ARB rule (BP above 130/80) is part of the management of diabetic patients; she does not have diabetes.
✓ Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 3 -
D
ليش صح
Her results point to prediabetes, and for prediabetes the advice is lifestyle change to lose about 5% of body weight.
✓ CV Risk factor 4th year 2023 copy.pdf · p. 28
- المصدر
- CV Risk factor 4th year 2023 copy.pdf · p. 28
Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 3 - المحاضرة
- Diabetes Mellitus · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- Endo bank