A 69-year-old diabetic women found in house unconscious the paramedics arrive immediately after the family immediately after the family discover her. Her blood sugar is tested and comes back 40 mg/dL. She is started on dextrose containing solution and given intramuscular glucagon. She regains consciousness. Which of the following pharmacological agents is most likely responsible for this severe hypoglycemia?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: B. Gliclazide
Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea: it stimulates insulin release from β-cells regardless of glucose level, so hypoglycaemia is its main adverse effect — especially in the elderly.
- Metformin is euglycaemic (does not cause hypoglycaemia on its own); pioglitazone and sitagliptin also carry little hypoglycaemia risk as monotherapy.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
-
A
ليش غلط
Metformin is euglycaemic (no hypoglycaemia): it increases glucose use and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
✓ Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 2 -
B
ليش صح
Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea: it lowers glucose by stimulating insulin release, hypoglycaemia is a listed side effect, and the risk is higher in the elderly.
✓ Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 3 -
C
ليش غلط
Pioglitazone's own side effects are fluid retention and weight gain; hypoglycaemia is listed only when combined with other antidiabetic drugs.
✓ Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 5 -
D
ليش غلط
Sitagliptin raises hypoglycaemia risk only when combined with insulin or a sulfonylurea; alone it is not the likely cause of severe hypoglycaemia.
✓ Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 9
- المصدر
- Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 3
Anti-diabetic.pdf · p. 2
Step Up To Medicine 6th Edition 2024 (DM).pdf · p. 22 - المحاضرة
- Hypoglycaemia · Endocrinology · Module B
- ظهر في
- Endo bank