A 17-year-old man has leg claudication. His right arm BP is 150/110 mmHg while his left BP is 80/60 mmHg. On auscultation, a systolic murmur best heard over the middle of the upper back is detected. You also find that the patient's femoral pulses are diminished when compared to brachial pulse Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
سؤال مجاني 7 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: A. Coarctation of the aorta
Coarctation of the aorta: high BP in the upper limb(s), weak/delayed femoral pulses compared with brachial, claudication from reduced lower-limb flow, and a systolic murmur heard over the back. The arm-to-arm difference occurs when the narrowing involves the left subclavian origin. VSD, PDA and ASD don't cause radio/brachio-femoral delay or limb BP gradients.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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A
ليش صح
Coarctation narrows the aorta, so BP is high in the upper extremities and low in the lower ones, with weaker lower-limb pulses than brachial/radial ones. This matches claudication and the diminished femoral pulses.
✓ (Y4)-(M B) Hypertension.pdf · p. 4 -
B
ليش غلط
A VSD gives a holosystolic murmur from LV-to-RV shunting (left 4th intercostal space). It is not described as causing weak femoral pulses or a BP gradient between the limbs.
✓ 8• Heart Sounds & Murmurs [Notes].pdf · p. 6
- المصدر
- (Y4)-(M B) Hypertension.pdf · p. 4
CARDIOLOGY-HTN.pdf · p. 4 - المحاضرة
- Hypertension · Cardiology · Module B
- ظهر في
- Cardio bank