A 52-year-old man has a 3-days history of progressive dyspnea on exertion orthopnea and lower limb swelling. He has ischemic heart disease, hypertension, T2DM. and dyslipidemia. He takes perindopril, metoprolol, aspirin, metformin. premixed insulin and atorvastatin. On examination, he is restless. HR 105/min regular, BP 140/85mmHg, RR 23/min, and oxygen saturation on room air 88%. He has distended jugular veins, peripheral edema, and bibasilar inspiratory crepitation. Chest y-ray shows signs of pulmonary edema, Oxygen has been given and he is seated in an upright position. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
سؤال مجاني 1 من 10 اليوم · اشترك وكمّل بدون حد
اعرض الإجابة
الإجابة والشرح
ادخل لحسابك عشان نحفظ إجاباتك ونوريك أخطاءك.
الإجابة: C. Intravenous loop diuretic
This is acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary oedema (JVD, crackles, oedema, hypoxia). After oxygen and sitting upright, the key step is an IV loop diuretic - diuresis is the most important intervention. IV thiazides are not used for acute decongestion; stopping a chronic beta-blocker is not the treatment for congestion in a normotensive, non-shocked patient; aspirin does not treat pulmonary oedema.
ليش كل خيار صح أو غلط
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C
ليش صح
In acute decompensated HF, diuretics for volume overload and congestion are the most important intervention.
✓ Step-Up To Medicine 6th (HF).pdf · p. 11 -
D
ليش غلط
Thiazide-like diuretics are used only to augment diuresis with loop diuretics, not as the main treatment of acute congestion.
✓ Step-Up To Medicine 6th (HF).pdf · p. 8
- المصدر
- Step-Up To Medicine 6th (HF).pdf · p. 11
Cardiac emergencies.pdf · p. 1 - المحاضرة
- Acute Pulmonary Oedema · Cardiology · Module B
- ظهر في
- Cardio bank